what does it mean fullness of god was pleased to dwell

1. 

   Kilk1 Well-Known Fellow member

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   Colossians 1:19 states (NKJV):

   For information technology pleased [the Father that] in Him all the fullness should dwell.

   At present, the New Male monarch James Version supplies "the Begetter," but to my noesis, almost empathise the Father every bit the 1 referred to here. In saying "it pleased the Father" that "all the fullness" should dwell in Jesus, does Colossians 1:nineteen propose that the Father gave "all the fullness" to Him? (For example, "It pleased the king that you should be a knight" could imply that your existence a knight was given by the king.)

   If this is the significant, what are the implications should "all the fullness" mean the aforementioned thing as Colossians 2:nine'due south "all the fullness of the Godhead"? And if this is not the meaning, what is the truthful meaning? Thanks!

   
2. 

   Marking Quayle Well-Known Fellow member Supporter

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   I think it is worth keeping in mind that none of our concepts quite precisely apply to God. He is non like united states of america.

3. 

   Kilk1 Well-Known Member

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   Yes, things are different with God than they are with u.s.. In whatever sense it would be, though, would Colossians 1:19 propose that the Begetter gave "all the fullness" to Christ? If so, would this mean that He gave "all the fullness of the Godhead" (Colossians 2:9, NKJV) to Him, in some sense?

4. 

   Mark Quayle Well-Known Member Supporter

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   To some information technology might, merely it does non necessarily grammatically imply that the Male parent "gave" information technology, equally far as I know. Only I'm not a Koine Greek principal.

   Many places in the Bible, what is translated "it pleased him", elsewhere if not in the immediate context is implied God's will, God'south decision and God's causing, so maybe this i likewise, though information technology says, "the Father", i.e. it does not say 'God'.

   If it does mean that the Male parent gave "all the fullness" to Christ, in what sense can nosotros say that he 'gave' it? And what would "all the fullness" mean? Most translations prove (in Colossians 2:9) the fullness living in him and that, actual , or in bodily form. I don't know if that could have been rightly translated, "in his body", as a way of proverb "within him" the way nosotros are told that the Spirit of God has taken up residence within us (since we know our body is the temple, so..., at least certainly in the mind or soul) and verse 10 says that we are complete in him.

   Either style, it seems apparent to me that Paul is referring to Jesus' life as a human, with lasting issue in his present 'form', whatever it is.

   We have many references to the notion of Christ's subservience to the Begetter, and that may accept more to do with what you are looking for. It is non implied that Christ was CREATED (nor improved on) by the Father, since he is from everlasting to everlasting God, and was there in the outset, being himself the Creator.

   There is, of course, a lot more to it than only that, merely this runs long already.

5. 

   Kilk1 Well-Known Member

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   Ah, that might assistance clear things up to me. First, let me say that I'grand not confident that "the fullness of the Godhead" can be construed to mean merely that God lives in Jesus the same way He lives in the states. Colossians 2:9 doesn't say that "God" dwelt in Jesus but that "the Godhead/Deity" (Greek theotés, "the country of being God" according to Thayer) dwelt in Him bodily--and "all the fullness" of theotés at that! And then it pleased the Father that all the fullness of Deity, everything that'd brand one be God, would dwell in Jesus bodily. However, I remember what you said may solve the dilemma.

   On the one hand, Barnes says the phrase "it pleased the Begetter" means "that he chose to confer on his Son such a rank..." To say that God gave Jesus everything that'd make Him qualify as God, seems problematic out of context. On the other mitt, Colossians one:19 past itself doesn't say when or where (beyond "in Him") that all the fullness would dwell. Colossians two:nine clarifies that the fullness would dwell "bodily."

   So, all things considered, is the meaning perhaps that information technology pleased the Father for Christ to have "all the fullness" dwell in Christ's body (a body prepared to manifest God to the world and to exist sacrificed for our sins, Heb. 10:5, 10)? If so, this could be more nearly saying that He'd accept Deity even in His body in order to manifest God to the world, rather than implying at that place was a time when the Son didn't accept the fullness.

   Does this brand sense? What are your thoughts? Thanks!

   Last edited: Aug 12, 2021

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